gigantes
05-28-2016, 08:54 AM
I'm not much of a conspiracy guy, but when I asked just now: "if the East is so 'weak' then why does it have such success against the West in the finals?".... a fellow poster quickly replied "championships since 1998: West: 12, East: 5."
Hah, that seemed to kick my ass right away.
But when I looked at more results, that idea seemed more and more broken. For example, the East won 8/10 just before that cutoff, bringing the total almost perfectly even since 1989. And going back further, both sides seem to have had a history of trading it back and forth, usually between the Lakers and the Celtics.
So I thought to myself-- did something change around that shift? ... Then I found this, right on NBA.com itself:
http://www.nba.com/2009/news/features/david_aldridge/04/22/aldridge.defenses/
Hah, that seemed to kick my ass right away.
But when I looked at more results, that idea seemed more and more broken. For example, the East won 8/10 just before that cutoff, bringing the total almost perfectly even since 1989. And going back further, both sides seem to have had a history of trading it back and forth, usually between the Lakers and the Celtics.
So I thought to myself-- did something change around that shift? ... Then I found this, right on NBA.com itself:
http://www.nba.com/2009/news/features/david_aldridge/04/22/aldridge.defenses/