Any Bible savants/studiers here? I have a Question

[ArbitraryWater]

I just dont understand Genesis 6 V 1-2

Genesis 6:1-4 When man began to multiply on the face of the land and daughters were born to them, the sons of God saw that the daughters of man were attractive. And they took as their wives any they chose. Then the LORD said, “My Spirit shall not abide in man forever, for he is flesh: his days shall be 120 years.” The Nephilim were on the earth in those days, and also afterward, when the sons of God came in to the daughters of man and they bore children to them. These were the mighty men who were of old, the men of renown.

I can kind of put together 3-4, even though the "men of renown" are supposed to be the Nephilim / Giants, which were, aready there?

But screw that part.

Who are the sons of God?!

Theyre either believed to be the offspring of Seth (godly) while the daughters of men are the offspring of Cain (ungodly). But why would that lead to a giant as offspring or fury in God? Its not exacty Cains offsprings fault that Cain sinned, either.

So the predominant belief is that the "sons of God" are Angels, because thats what they were refered to 3-4 times in Genesis.

But why woud angels be refered to as sons of God? It makes no sense to me. And arent angels accepted to be female? So why would they and how could they, mate with women?

It would make sense if these were "angels in rebellion", aka demons.

[highwhey]

yes, it's refering to angels. and they do not have sex. the bible requires a lot of deduction from reading one book to another. for example, you may better understand this verse by reading a later book that refers to angels.

anyhow. why do we assume angels are male? because jesus was an angel. how do we arrive at the conclusion that angels produced offspring with humans? because they are capable of materializing into human flesh, at least in that time they were allowed to do so. God has since removed that ability. and it was fallen angels that did that, they fell to the trap that all flesh is tempted by.

Jude 1:6 -
And the angels who did not keep their original position but forsook their own proper dwelling place,a he has reserved with eternal bonds in dense darkness for the judgment of the great day.b reffering to fallen angels that left their holy positions in the heavens to rape human women.

Job 1:6 -
Now the day came when the sons of the true God entered to take their station before Jehovah,b and Satanc also entered among them. - reffering to angels as sons of God

[highwhey]

Genesis 19:1-11 -
The two angels arrived at Sodʹom by evening, and Lot was sitting in the gate of Sodʹom. When Lot saw them, he got up to meet them and bowed down with his face to the earth.a 2 And he said: “Please, my lords, turn aside, please, into the house of your servant and stay overnight and have your feet washed. Then you may get up early and travel on your way.” To this they said: “No, we will stay overnight in the public square.” 3 But he was so insistent with them that they went with him to his house. Then he made a feast for them, and he baked unleavened bread, and they ate.
4 Before they could lie down to sleep, the men of the city—the men of Sodʹom from boy to old man, all of them—surrounded the house in one mob. 5 And they kept calling out to Lot and saying to him: “Where are the men who came in to you tonight? Bring them out to us so that we may have sex with them.


Two angels sent by God to check out the city before its destruction. Apparently the inhabitants of that city were something else...they tried having sex with the angels. So yeah, they were able to materialized into human form.

[ArbitraryWater]

yes, it's refering to angels. and they do not have sex. the bible requires a lot of deduction from reading one book to another. for example, you may better understand this verse by reading a later book that refers to angels.

anyhow. why do we assume angels are male? because jesus was an angel. how do we arrive at the conclusion that angels produced offspring with humans? because they are capable of materializing into human flesh, at least in that time they were allowed to do so. God has since removed that ability. and it was fallen angels that did that, they fell to the trap that all flesh is tempted by.

Jude 1:6 - reffering to fallen angels that left their holy positions in the heavens to rape human women.

Job 1:6 - - reffering to angels as sons of God

what do you mean, they do not have sex? why would the offspring and bonding be without sex? it even mentions discourse iirc


is it made clear that they raped them? im sure they came on to them, and genesis 6 says they took their wifes as they chose.. does that indicate rape?

whatever it was, it definitely was primitive.


what jesus was is kind of tricky. many say he was a human being in flesh, son of god, many say he was god himself, and some seem to say he was an angel.


you are right angels can take on different forms. and im sure the fallen ones did so to deceive and engage in bad behaviour.

[ArbitraryWater]

Genesis 19:1-11 -


Two angels sent by God to check out the city before its destruction. Apparently the inhabitants of that city were something else...they tried having sex with the angels. So yeah, they were able to materialized into human form.

but in this case the angels are female, given that the men of the city wanted to have sex with them.

[highwhey]

what do you mean, they do not have sex? why would the offspring and bonding be without sex? it even mentions discourse iirc


is it made clear that they raped them? im sure they came on to them, and genesis 6 says they took their wifes as they chose.. does that indicate rape?

whatever it was, it definitely was primitive.


what jesus was is kind of tricky. many say he was a human being in flesh, son of god, many say he was god himself, and some seem to say he was an angel.


you are right angels can take on different forms. and im sure the fallen ones did so to deceive and engage in bad behaviour.

in there angel form they do not reproduce. it's the same reasoning that despite being perfect beings, they are still tempted and in this case, they fell to the temptation of lust.

maybe i am thinking of the nephilim who raped women, not the angel themselves. i think thats it, because the act itself was so nefarious it introduced a whole new level of wickedness to the world that God saw fit to eliminate (flood the earth, noah's ark). it's been years since i picked up a bible and when i used to read it, it was in spanish. so i remember the verses in spanish then have to translate my deduction from those to english.

Jesus took human form, but you have to do a lot of study to decide for yourself on what Jesus was. i think the bible makes a clear distinction between God and Jesus but again, you gotta study it for yourself.

[highwhey]

but in this case the angels are female, given that the men of the city wanted to have sex with them.

it refers to them as men. Sodom and Gmorra was the most despicable city/place on earth during those times. God destroyed the whole city because of all the crazy things going on in that particular city. gay sex was not out of place in that city.

[ArbitraryWater]

in there angel form they do not reproduce. it's the same reasoning that despite being perfect beings, they are still tempted and in this case, they fell to the temptation of lust.

maybe i am thinking of the nephilim who raped women, not the angel themselves. i think thats it, because the act itself was so nefarious it introduced a whole new level of wickedness to the world that God saw fit to eliminate (flood the earth, noah's ark). it's been years since i picked up a bible and when i used to read it, it was in spanish. so i remember the verses in spanish then have to translate my deduction from those to english.

Jesus took human form, but you have to do a lot of study to decide for yourself on what Jesus was. i think the bible makes a clear distinction between God and Jesus but again, you gotta study it for yourself.

sure, but they still must have had sex.

yea the nephilims evil and even killing of each other was one of the reasons for the flood, but i dont think rape is explicitly mentioned.


it refers to them as men. Sodom and Gmorra was the most despicable city/place on earth during those times. God destroyed the whole city because of all the crazy things going on in that particular city. gay sex was not out of place in that city.

you really think that was about gay sex? why do you think it refers to them as men? does angel always mean man?

that would go against a lot of biblical imagery.

[PANTHALASSA]

The translation of “Sons of God” generally has seen a more literal interpretation in English than how it used in the original Hebrew.

The phrase as used originally in hebrew scripture is intended simply as a euphemism for Lebron James (God) and the Lebron Fam (sons of God).

Those are the people having sex with all the women.

[ArbitraryWater]

The translation of “Sons of God” generally has seen a more literal interpretation in English than how it used in the original Hebrew.

The phrase as used originally in hebrew scripture is intended simply as a euphemism for Lebron James (God) and the Lebron Fam (sons of God).

Those are the people having sex with all the women.


Is this from the King James Bible?

[highwhey]

sure, but they still must have had sex.

yea the nephilims evil and even killing of each other was one of the reasons for the flood, but i dont think rape is explicitly mentioned.



you really think that was about gay sex? why do you think it refers to them as men? does angel always mean man?

that would go against a lot of biblical imagery.
this is why i mean the bible requires of inference. angels are seen as asexual. sex and reproduction is something seen as a gift and responsibility for humans (some verse in genesis where God tells adam and eve to go reproduce and populate the earth).

nephilim are the offspring of the fallen angels, so i mean the nephilim raped women. it's a conclusion based on the account of them in the bible that refers to them as violent and bullies who took anything they wanted by force. Genesis 6 refers to the fallen angels who took daugthers of men as their wives.

and no, sodom and gmorra did not get destroyed bc of gay sex only, they were into some very perverted things...so much so that their neighboring cities were full of people praying to God about how bad they were...Genesis 18:20
Then Jehovah said: “The outcry against Sodʹom and Go·morʹrah is indeed great,+ and their sin is very heavy also, read that verse i qouted above where the 2 angels visiting town are surrounded by a mob comprised of "from boy to old man"...indicating there were children there. wether the children were wanting to have sex with the angels or not is not clear, but the fact that they were part of that mob tells you just how bad that city was. sounds like a city where anyone may get raped.

[highwhey]

oh yeah...if you keep reading those verses, it says how the angels blinded the mob to attempt to keep them from attacking the angels yet despite being made blind, they still tried getting physical with them. and some verse says how they were excessively perverse. so either they were straight up raping everyone and/or they may have even been having sex with animals.

[red1]

get yourself a Quran.

[red1]

I respect any christian or jew that actually practices their religion.

[iamgine]

I'm going to explain it through a more modern lens.

the sons of God saw that the daughters of man were attractive. And they took as their wives any they chose.

So white people (slave owners/sons of God) took the tallest, strongest black people from Africa (daughters of man) as slaves and breed them (wives=slaves). And that's how we get NBA players (Nephilim).

[Chick Stern]

yes, it's refering to angels. and they do not have sex. the bible requires a lot of deduction from reading one book to another. for example, you may better understand this verse by reading a later book that refers to angels.

anyhow. why do we assume angels are male? because jesus was an angel. how do we arrive at the conclusion that angels produced offspring with humans? because they are capable of materializing into human flesh, at least in that time they were allowed to do so. God has since removed that ability. and it was fallen angels that did that, they fell to the trap that all flesh is tempted by.

Jude 1:6 - reffering to fallen angels that left their holy positions in the heavens to rape human women.

Job 1:6 - - reffering to angels as sons of God

god raped human women

[ArbitraryWater]

this is why i mean the bible requires of inference. angels are seen as asexual. sex and reproduction is something seen as a gift and responsibility for humans (some verse in genesis where God tells adam and eve to go reproduce and populate the earth).

nephilim are the offspring of the fallen angels, so i mean the nephilim raped women. it's a conclusion based on the account of them in the bible that refers to them as violent and bullies who took anything they wanted by force. Genesis 6 refers to the fallen angels who took daugthers of men as their wives.

and no, sodom and gmorra did not get destroyed bc of gay sex only, they were into some very perverted things...so much so that their neighboring cities were full of people praying to God about how bad they were...Genesis 18:20 also, read that verse i qouted above where the 2 angels visiting town are surrounded by a mob comprised of "from boy to old man"...indicating there were children there. wether the children were wanting to have sex with the angels or not is not clear, but the fact that they were part of that mob tells you just how bad that city was. sounds like a city where anyone may get raped.

yea i refered to the bod, but not sure i can read rape into that.

i know about sodom and gomora, and i agree with a that. aso interesting catch about boy to man..

but where does it say a anges are men?

[highwhey]

yea i refered to the bod, but not sure i can read rape into that.

i know about sodom and gomora, and i agree with a that. aso interesting catch about boy to man..

but where does it say a anges are men?

in those specific verses they are reffered to as males. and in all other instances where they appeared in human flesh, they did so as males. also, they are often described with masculine features. "sons of God" "

[HighFlyer23]

The word used is bani Elohim, which means offspring of god/the gods

ItÂ’s commonly believed that they were angels, but this is not accurateÂ… the word for angel is malach

The ancient Canaanites believed that the bani Elohim were the children of god … meaning they were gods as well … there seem to be different classes of the bani elohim in the ancient cananite religion but they were all gods

These passages go back to the ancient cananite polytheistic beliefs regarding the children of god Â…

The reason why you are having problems understanding this is because you donÂ’t realize that the people who wrote these passages were presenting the ancient polytheistic beliefs of their ancestors and neighbors Â… This is polytheism by modern definition

The religion of the Bible is nothing but a text version of the evolution of the religion of the area …. Which has its origin in the ancient Canaanite religion centered around their chief deity El … the bani Elohim are essentially the children of El by extension since he is the father of the gods of the Canaanites … the authors took from the other older religious traditions of the area including those of the Mesopotamians, Egyptians, Iranians, Greeks … they took from those whom they came into contact with

The Israelite religion is from all of these sources. They are the descendants of the ancient Canaanites hence you find the traditions of their ancestors in their scripture

There was likely no official canon of the “Bible” until the Greek period … meaning that the religion was still being developed until that time period …


The children of El, the gods, took the human females as “wives” (force is implied in the actual text) and reproduced with them and their offspring were called the fallen ones

This is what the text is conveying without interpretation

[FKAri]

Thread reminds me of East of Eden.

[ArbitraryWater]

The word used is bani Elohim, which means offspring of god/the gods

ItÂ’s commonly believed that they were angels, but this is not accurateÂ… the word for angel is malach

The ancient Canaanites believed that the bani Elohim were the children of god … meaning they were gods as well … there seem to be different classes of the bani elohim in the ancient cananite religion but they were all gods

These passages go back to the ancient cananite polytheistic beliefs regarding the children of god Â…

The reason why you are having problems understanding this is because you donÂ’t realize that the people who wrote these passages were presenting the ancient polytheistic beliefs of their ancestors and neighbors Â… This is polytheism by modern definition

The religion of the Bible is nothing but a text version of the evolution of the religion of the area …. Which has its origin in the ancient Canaanite religion centered around their chief deity El … the bani Elohim are essentially the children of El by extension since he is the father of the gods of the Canaanites … the authors took from the other older religious traditions of the area including those of the Mesopotamians, Egyptians, Iranians, Greeks … they took from those whom they came into contact with

The Israelite religion is from all of these sources. They are the descendants of the ancient Canaanites hence you find the traditions of their ancestors in their scripture

There was likely no official canon of the “Bible” until the Greek period … meaning that the religion was still being developed until that time period …


The children of El, the gods, took the human females as “wives” (force is implied in the actual text) and reproduced with them and their offspring were called the fallen ones

This is what the text is conveying without interpretation


But where does it say they woud aso have to be gods? You assume chidren of gods are gods, right? Were aso "chidren of god" according to the bibe iirc..

and since are there so many gods? Is that what the ancient cananite poytheistic beiefs were or what? Doesnt seem right. Sounds ike greek mythology.

[HighFlyer23]

But where does it say they woud aso have to be gods? You assume chidren of gods are gods, right? Were aso "chidren of god" according to the bibe iirc..

and since are there so many gods? Is that what the ancient cananite poytheistic beiefs were or what? Doesnt seem right. Sounds ike greek mythology.


But where does it say they woud aso have to be gods? You assume chidren of gods are gods, right? Were aso "chidren of god" according to the bibe iirc..

and since are there so many gods? Is that what the ancient cananite poytheistic beiefs were or what? Doesnt seem right. Sounds ike greek mythology.

The Canaanites believed in many gods and were polytheists. They believed in the 70 sons of Athirat according to the Ugaritic texts. Athirat was the consort of El, so they believed in the 70 sons of El who were all gods. The Bible consistently takes from the cananite religion. Not surprising because the authors of the Bible are descendant and neighbors of Canaanites, and scholars today say that the Israelites of that time were Canaanites.

For example, Psalm 29 which is a Psalm in praise of YHWH is believed by scholars to have originally been a hymn to Ba’al Haddad, the Cananite storm god. The scholar John Day has shown many similarities between the Ugaritic texts description of Ba’al Haddad with the description of YHWH in Psalm29.

Habakkuk 3 is another text of the Bible that is believed to have been heavily influenced by Canaanite religious beliefs.

I don’t assume that, I know that. The words used are Bani Elohim which means sons of god. This tale about the Nephillim is likely also influenced by the ancient Mesopotamians who believed in these kinds of part god part human, beings. The Bible is a composite work that takes from many other traditions and beliefs of the ancient Near East. It makes some interesting mistakes when trying to discuss some of the characters, places, beliefs , stories, and histories of the ancient Near East. Nimrod and Cush being one of them.

One huge proof that shows this is that in the Dead Sea Scrolls mention the ancient Near Eastern legendary character Gilgamesh by name in 4Q530 2 ii and 4Q531 22 as one of the “giants”

Some scholars now believe that Greek mythology may have influenced it as well as it may have been composed as late as circa 270 BC during the Greek period.

[HighFlyer23]

Thread reminds me of East of Eden.

Eden may be from the Sumerian word Edinu which can be rendered as garden

Greek mythology also was influenced by the Ancient Near East

The Sumerians, Akkadians, and other ancient Mesopotamian civilizations are the progenitors of much of these traditions and beliefs and religions

[Lakers Legend#32]

You would have thought Evangelical Christian Poopsie would have chimed in.

But he's too busy not going to church.