How is home court tiebreaker in the NBA finals determined?

[Westbrook0]

Tiebreaker:

(-) Tie breaker not needed (better overall winning percentage)
(1) W-L Percentage, other conference
(2) Random drawing




Source: None.
I'm sure it's this.

Here's some info:

2000-01
PHI @ LAL

Same record.
PHI 16-12 vs other conference (40-14 vs own conference).
LAL 22-8 vs other conference (34-18 vs own conference).


1989-90
CHI @ UTA

Same record.
CHI 20-8 vs other conference (42-12 vs own conference).
UTA 24-6 vs other conference (38-14 vs own conference).


1997-98
POR @ DET

Same record.
POR 18-8 vs other conference (41-15 vs own conference).
DET 19-9 vs other conference (40-14 vs own conference).


Own conference record has nothing to do with HCA in the Finals.

And did all those teams split the head-to-head during the regular season?

[LABean]

And did all those teams split the head-to-head during the regular season?

All, but the Bulls. They lost the regular season head-to-head 0-2. They didn't get HCA though.
I'm guessing due to the vs other conference record.
The rest split it (1-1).

The Bulls won the regular season against the Spurs (1-0), and yet, it says, "Should the Bulls and Spurs finish the season with the same record and the same record against the opposite conference, the tiebreaker for home-court advantage in a prospective Finals matchup would be determined by a random drawing."

So I'm guessing head-to-head doesn't count.
Shit's confusing.

I'd stick with the layout I provided.

[ArbitraryWater]

that's why.
if they have the same record, head to head record, and same conference record.

You were wrong you know... its record vs opposite conference

[Westbrook0]

Jesus, I made this thread two years ago - are we still trying to figure this out?

And I was apparently really pissed off when I made this.