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  1. #1
    NBA Legend and Hall of Famer 3ball's Avatar
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    Default How did Bulls have four #1 offenses with no 3rd option and an often weak-scoring 2nd?

    .
    No offensive talent yet a goat offense?...


    Only goat teamwork can make that happen...



    But how can there be teamwork/championships with a scoring champion?.... ... It's never been done...


    Only if the player is good enough to score optimally can a scoring champion achieve championship teamwork (win a championship in the same year)..

    Only a few have been good enough to do it - Curry did it once in 2016 but Silver robbed him... Kareem and Shaq did it once each in their peak seasons of 71' and 00', and of course MJ 6 times (goat)

  2. #2
    Embiid > Jokic SouBeachTalents's Avatar
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    Default Re: How did Bulls have four #1 offenses with no 3rd option and an often weak-scoring 2nd?

    1-9

  3. #3
    I go HAM TheCorporation's Avatar
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    Default Re: How did Bulls have four #1 offenses with no 3rd option and an often weak-scoring 2nd?

    1-9

  4. #4
    NBA Legend and Hall of Famer 3ball's Avatar
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    Default Re: How did Bulls have four #1 offenses with no 3rd option and an often weak-scoring 2nd?

    Quote Originally Posted by TheCorporation
    1-9
    I added Curry to the OP... ..

    I put him in the same class as MJ, Kareem and Shaq - the only guys in history that scored optimally enough to be scoring champion while still achieving championship teamwork (win the championship the same yr)

    Curry did it in 16' but Silver robbed him, and then Kyrie's clutch shot killed the Warriors

  5. #5
    Banned SpaceJam2's Avatar
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    Default Re: How did Bulls have four #1 offenses with no 3rd option and an often weak-scoring 2nd?

    1-9

  6. #6
    Lol RRR3's Avatar
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    Default Re: How did Bulls have four #1 offenses with no 3rd option and an often weak-scoring 2nd?

    1-9

  7. #7
    9x All Defensive 1st And1AllDay's Avatar
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    Default Re: How did Bulls have four #1 offenses with no 3rd option and an often weak-scoring 2nd?

    1-9

  8. #8
    Kobe Stan
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    Default Re: How did Bulls have four #1 offenses with no 3rd option and an often weak-scoring 2nd?

    1-9

  9. #9
    NBA Legend and Hall of Famer 3ball's Avatar
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    Default Re: How did Bulls have four #1 offenses with no 3rd option and an often weak-scoring 2nd?

    bump

  10. #10
    Lol RRR3's Avatar
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    Default Re: How did Bulls have four #1 offenses with no 3rd option and an often weak-scoring 2nd?

    1-9

  11. #11
    Coach SamuraiSWISH's Avatar
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    Default Re: How did Bulls have four #1 offenses with no 3rd option and an often weak-scoring 2nd?

    1-9 ...

    is LeBron

  12. #12
    NBA Legend and Hall of Famer 3ball's Avatar
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    Default Re: How did Bulls have four #1 offenses with no 3rd option and an often weak-scoring 2nd?

    Quote Originally Posted by RRR3

    1-9
    Proof that Lebron plays an inferior way:


    Top Team ORtg all-time:

    1) 87' LAL 115.6
    1) 17' GSW 115.6
    2) 92' CHI 115.5


    26) 17' CLE 113.6



    Lebron's offenses (team ORtg) were only elite in a given season (i.e. ranked #3 in the league) - they weren't elite all-time.. there's a difference between #3 in the league and #3 all-time

    Lebron's offenses peaked with the #26 all-time ortg in 2017, and #46 in 2016.. (so that's zero top 20 offenses).. Lebron has no other offenses in the top 75

    Jordan's team ORtg peaked at #2 all-time in 1992... It was also #6, #12 and #16 all-time (the most top 10 and top 20 offenses ever)

    Lebron's attempt to replace inexploitable ball movement with his exploitable CP3-style ball-dominance simply results in inferior offenses and teams than skillsets that can get stats while the ball moves (Bird, MJ, Curry, etc)

    Ultimately, it's obvious that MJ's ability to have the #2 all-time offense would give him a better chance against the Warriors #1 offense, than lebron's #26 and 46 offenses did.. (and we know lebron had more offensive help than MJ, so his weaker offenses demonstrate his inferior way of playing and skilkset, i.e. ball-dominance over ball-movement)

  13. #13
    Embiid > Jokic SouBeachTalents's Avatar
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    Default Re: How did Bulls have four #1 offenses with no 3rd option and an often weak-scoring 2nd?

    Quote Originally Posted by 3ball
    Proof that Lebron plays an inferior way:


    Top Team ORtg all-time:

    1) 87' LAL 115.6
    1) 17' GSW 115.6
    2) 92' CHI 115.5


    26) 17' CLE 113.6



    Lebron's offenses (team ORtg) were only elite in a given season (i.e. ranked #3 in the league) - they weren't elite all-time.. there's a difference between #3 in the league and #3 all-time

    Lebron's offenses peaked with the #26 all-time ortg in 2017, and #46 in 2016.. (so that's zero top 20 offenses).. Lebron has no other offenses in the top 75

    Jordan's team ORtg peaked at #2 all-time in 1992... It was also #6, 12 and #16 all-time (the most top 10 and top 20 offenses ever)

    Lebron's attempt to replace inexploitable ball movement with his exploitable CP3 style ball-dominance simply results in inferior offenses and teams than skillsets that can get stats while the ball moves (Bird, MJ, Curry, etc)

    Ultimately, it's obvious that MJ's ability to have the #2 all-time offense would give him a better chance against the Warriors #1 offense, than lebron's #26-46 offenses did.. (and we know lebron had more offensive help than MJ, so his weaker offenses demonstrate his inferior way of playing and skilkset, i.e. ball-dominance over ball-movement)
    1-9

  14. #14
    National High School Star Akeem34TheDream's Avatar
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    Default Re: How did Bulls have four #1 offenses with no 3rd option and an often weak-scoring 2nd?

    I came here just to write 1-9.

  15. #15
    NBA Legend FKAri's Avatar
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    Default Re: How did Bulls have four #1 offenses with no 3rd option and an often weak-scoring 2nd?


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