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  1. #46
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    Default Re: how come Jordan never lost in the Finals?

    Quote Originally Posted by LeBird
    Because whenever they weren't the best team in the league they lost before the finals.
    Were the Bulls the best team all year in 92-93 and 97-98 too ?

  2. #47
    7-time NBA All-Star KG215's Avatar
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    Default Re: how come Jordan never lost in the Finals?

    I don't understand why he bumped a thread where the last post was made 6 hours before his, just to post essentially the same ignorant comment as the previous poster.

  3. #48
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    Default Re: how come Jordan never lost in the Finals?

    Quote Originally Posted by InfiniteBaskets
    That's kind of a trick question, especially the way phrased in the OP. Reed was on the Knicks in 1972 and the Knicks lost to the Lakers in the finals that year. Sure you can say Reed didn't play because he was injured, but he was on the team and thus he would have gotten a championship ring had they won.
    That's a bunch of crap. A player doesn't lose a series he never plays in. It's like when a certain player attributed to Duncan a playoff loss in 2000 when he never played a second in the postseason.

  4. #49
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    Default Re: how come Jordan never lost in the Finals?

    He had the vastly superior team in 4 of 6 of those Finals and slightly better team in 1 (98 Jazz). The only opponent that was very evenly matched and possibly slightly better was the 93 Suns.

  5. #50
    Local High School Star LeBird's Avatar
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    Default Re: how come Jordan never lost in the Finals?

    Quote Originally Posted by Legends66NBA7
    Were the Bulls the best team all year in 92-93 and 97-98 too ?
    Of course they were. What, you think because in 92-93 they were 3-5 games behind NY/PS in the regular season they weren't the best? The team that had won 2 titles prior shouldn't be regarded as the best?

    And why weren't they the best in 97-98?
    Last edited by LeBird; 06-25-2013 at 01:44 AM.

  6. #51
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    Default Re: how come Jordan never lost in the Finals?

    All in all, Jordan should have easily won no less than 4 titles. Replay each of those series 1000 times over and he probably wins 5/6 about 75% of the time.

  7. #52
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    Default Re: how come Jordan never lost in the Finals?

    Quote Originally Posted by ThaRegul8r
    That's a bunch of crap. A player doesn't lose a Finals he never plays in.
    Yup.

    It's like saying Tim Duncan lost in the first round of the 2000 playoffs. Or for a more recent example, Kobe Bryant losing in the first round of the 2013 playoffs.

  8. #53
    Local High School Star LeBird's Avatar
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    Default Re: how come Jordan never lost in the Finals?

    Quote Originally Posted by KG215
    I don't understand why he bumped a thread where the last post was made 6 hours before his, just to post essentially the same ignorant comment as the previous poster.
    Or worse, if you think a post is useless to then give it further attention by posting a non-statement like the above.

    FYI, I don't care when a poster posted the last comment in a thread and I don't read all posts all the time before I post my opinion.

  9. #54
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    Default Re: how come Jordan never lost in the Finals?

    Quote Originally Posted by Legends66NBA7
    Were the Bulls the best team all year in 92-93 and 97-98 too ?
    Pip only played 44 games in 97-98 and the Bulls still won 62. Even though he didn't play well at all in the playoffs, true (non-Jazz/Bull) junkies of the game weren't seriously picking Utah over Chicago (despite the fact that the dumbass Vegas oddsmakers were).

  10. #55
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    Default Re: how come Jordan never lost in the Finals?

    brian cardinal has also never lost in the finals

  11. #56
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    Default Re: how come Jordan never lost in the Finals?

    Quote Originally Posted by LeBird
    Of course they were. What, you think because in 92-93 they were 3-5 games behind NY/PS in the regular season they weren't the best? The team that had won 2 titles prior shouldn't be regarded as the best?

    And why weren't they the best in 97-98?
    Pip barly played and when he came back he played horrible in the playoffs in fact he was out of a finals game. Mj still led tat team to 62 wins even through himself was 35 years old with a crack knuckle.

  12. #57
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    Default Re: how come Jordan never lost in the Finals?

    Quote Originally Posted by guy
    People call it weak competition, but the fact is that Jordan made his competition look weak. Its funny, cause in alot of ways, somehow the Bulls losing the 90s Cavs, Knicks, Pacers, or Jazz and having one or two less titles would probably make their dynasty look even more impressive in some people's eyes because it makes their competition look much better in their eyes.
    Not really.

    Its weak competition because it was weak.

    The 80s were VERY strong. Teams were a lot better.

    Even teams who are known for their 90s play like the Jazz were better in the 80s. Younger Malone, younger Stockton, 7'4 Mark Eaton who was averaging 4 BPG(the late 90s teams had Ostertag for comparisons sake), and Thurl Bailey guy(who was an extremely long defender and 20 PPG scorer). The best Jazz team of the Malone era was the 1988 Jazz, they took the 88 Lakers to 7 games in the semifinals, but because the league as a whole was better they didn't make the Finals either.

    Jordan couldn't win until these teams broke down. The only 90s team that actually had comparable talent to the Bulls that they ever played was Shaqs Magic(who beat them in 95)

  13. #58
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    Default Re: how come Jordan never lost in the Finals?

    Quote Originally Posted by LeBird
    Of course they were. What, you think because in 92-93 they were 3-5 games behind NY/PS in the regular season they weren't the best? The team that had won 2 titles prior shouldn't be regarded as the best?

    And why weren't they the best in 97-98?
    Off course a 2-time champion should be recognized as the best, at least as the preview of those seasons. All-year in 92-93 ? I don't think they were and weren't supposed to come back down 0-2 vs the Knicks. Took Jordan a masterful series vs the Suns after.

    Like others have mentioned, they weren't supposed to win in 97-98. Pippen missed a big chunk of that season, his worst version of the title years... team was much older overall, team management breaking up pieces of the roster due to an on going feud with the players/coaches, etc. They weren't even supposed to be in the finals.

    I believe a majority of the reason why those particular teams won is because of their experience factor, "will to win", and having the best player in the game.

  14. #59
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    Default Re: how come Jordan never lost in the Finals?

    Quote Originally Posted by greymatter
    Pip only played 44 games in 97-98 and the Bulls still won 62. Even though he didn't play well at all in the playoffs, true (non-Jazz/Bull) junkies of the game weren't seriously picking Utah over Chicago (despite the fact that the dumbass Vegas oddsmakers were).
    This is true too.

  15. #60
    GIVEN NOT EARNED ripthekik's Avatar
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    Default Re: how come Jordan never lost in the Finals?

    Quote Originally Posted by TonyMontana
    Not really.

    Its weak competition because it was weak.

    The 80s were VERY strong. Teams were a lot better.

    Even teams who are known for their 90s play like the Jazz were better in the 80s. Younger Malone, younger Stockton, 7'4 Mark Eaton who was averaging 4 BPG(the late 90s teams had Ostertag for comparisons sake), and Thurl Bailey guy(who was an extremely long defender and 20 PPG scorer). The best Jazz team of the Malone era was the 1988 Jazz, they took the 88 Lakers to 7 games in the semifinals, but because the league as a whole was better they didn't make the Finals either.

    Jordan couldn't win until these teams broke down. The only 90s team that actually had comparable talent to the Bulls that they ever played was Shaqs Magic(who beat them in 95)
    Exact same thing for Current day Lebron

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